6 Comments

  1. Susan Boyd says:

    Livia,
    this post if fantastic! I was trying to figure out why Ab, Ad (prepositions) had a non dative noun ending! And Iter Facio/is/it, etc has also been a thorn in my side.

    I need time to digest everything in this post -you don’t know what you don’t know until, uh, you stumble on the anomaly.

    I am new to Latin but actually a heck of a lot about English grammar studying German. These posts are extremely helpful.

    Good luck with summer school! I love Boston/Cambridge in the summer!

    1. I am so glad you found this post helpful, Susan, and thank you for the good wishes! If you ever learn Ancient Greek, then you will find prepositions with the dative like in German. Prepositions never take the dative in Latin, just the accusative or ablative (or genitive, if we include nouns that function as prepositions). This reminds me that I need to write a post specifically about Latin prepositions.

  2. Ondrej Saly says:

    There is classical biblical verse “Beautus vir qui timet Deum/Dominum.” I would think of genitive form. Accusative there seems rather strange to me. 🙂

    thank you for the post

    1. Hi Ondrej, I’m glad you enjoyed the post! As for your example: I think that your confusion probably results from how you are translating the phrase.

      “Beātus vir quī timet Deum” means “Blessed is the man who fears God.” In this case, Deum/God is the direct object, because it receives the action of the verb (timet/fears). This means that Deum should be in the accusative case.

      Sometimes “timet” gets translated as “afraid of,” which sounds like a genitive to English speakers. But try to remember that in Latin, “timet” takes a direct object in the accusative, just like the English verb “fear” does.

  3. Pater Iosephus says:

    Livia,

    I had a student write, for an answer, “Aemilia venit quia audit Iūlia plōrat.” I realize this is wrong. However, the “quia” is throwing me off as to whether what follows Iūliam plorāre could be an indirect statement. Would “Aemilia venit quia audit Iūliam plorāre” be acceptable? Would there be a better way to handle this?

    Gratias tibi.

    1. Good question! Yes, “Aemilia venit quia audit Iūliam plōrāre” would be correct. Quia introduces a subordinate clause that explains WHY Aemilia came. This subordinate clauses then includes an indirect statement inside of it.

      One way to clarify things is to remove “audit Iūliam plōrāre” from the quia-clause to see if it is grammatically correct on its own. It is: you can say “she hears that Julia is crying”, and this is perfectly correct.

      Indirect statements can be inside various types of clauses. We wouldn’t use quia to INTRODUCE an indirect statement all on its own, but quia can be followed by a verb of thinking, saying, hearing, etc. which then triggers the indirect statement.

      I hope this makes sense!

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